Hmm

[http://users.livejournal.com/_bella_mafia_/]

Now seriously girls, what are the odds of becoming pregnant when he doesn't ejaculate inside of you, but he's been inside?

And how accurate are pregnancy tests when you don't do them with first morning urine?

The reason I'm asking is that I haven't had a period in over 40 days, I've taken 3 pregnancy tests and all have been negative. My boyfriend and I horse around, and he puts it in, but doesn't cum - and he's only in a minute or 3. I know precum can have traces of sperm, but I've read about him urinating after the last ejaculation clears out those remaining guys, but anything is possible right?

I'm going to the gyno on Friday to go back on Birth Control because I can't be spending all my time worrying about I'm pregnant and trying to figure out when my period will be.

I was on BC for a month, I bled like crazy so I stopped, 3 months after I had a 16 day cycle, a 25 day cycle and a 28 day cycle. Before I was on the pill, my periods were 40 days apart. I recently moved and got a new job, could my body still be readjusting after the pill coupled with my high stress level?

Just kinda curious about the first 2 questions I asked, any help would be pretty good.

Thanks,
R

Comments

[bachlava.livejournal.com]

It all depends. Is your boyfriend one of those men who tends to "leak" a bit of semen without feeling it prior to the main ejaculation? If so, the risk is higher. Three negative pregnancy tests are a fairly good sign, but their accuracy is appreciably less when you don't use first morning urine. If you want to be more sure before your appointment, take another one with first morning urine.