[identity profile] alwaysamommy.livejournal.com posting in [community profile] vaginapagina
This doesn't actually apply to me but I was curious. Last night, I was watching the commercial for Valtrex. At the bottom of the screen, a disclaimer flashed saying that Valtrex has only been tested in heterosexual couples. Honestly, I can't see a difference. It's not like a virus such as Herpes is going to care if you're male or female, right?
I was just curious what any potential difference would be.

Date: 2007-08-12 05:47 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] spermeister.livejournal.com
Since it was a clinical study, they have to be upfront about the sample used in testing. Since it's a drug for an STI, then they have to be upfront that they only tested the drug with people who had partners of the opposite sex. It's only relevant if someone else comes along and runs a similar test and finds different results, and this way the company can say "The differences might be because we only tested it in heterosexual couples, what did you use?"

Just the rules of research.

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