Hmm

[http://users.livejournal.com/_bella_mafia_/]

Now seriously girls, what are the odds of becoming pregnant when he doesn't ejaculate inside of you, but he's been inside?

And how accurate are pregnancy tests when you don't do them with first morning urine?

The reason I'm asking is that I haven't had a period in over 40 days, I've taken 3 pregnancy tests and all have been negative. My boyfriend and I horse around, and he puts it in, but doesn't cum - and he's only in a minute or 3. I know precum can have traces of sperm, but I've read about him urinating after the last ejaculation clears out those remaining guys, but anything is possible right?

I'm going to the gyno on Friday to go back on Birth Control because I can't be spending all my time worrying about I'm pregnant and trying to figure out when my period will be.

I was on BC for a month, I bled like crazy so I stopped, 3 months after I had a 16 day cycle, a 25 day cycle and a 28 day cycle. Before I was on the pill, my periods were 40 days apart. I recently moved and got a new job, could my body still be readjusting after the pill coupled with my high stress level?

Just kinda curious about the first 2 questions I asked, any help would be pretty good.

Thanks,
R

Comments

[atalanta0jess.livejournal.com]

Well, we actually KNOW how reliable it is though - it has a 19% failure rate, with typical use (http://www.fda.gov/Fdac/features/1997/conceptbl.html). And of course, since that's a typical use stat, it does account for all those factors that you mentioned. The perfect use failure rate is 4%

And just for comparisons sake, the female condom has a 21% typical use failure rate. (In fact, even the perfect use rates follow that trend - the female condom has a higher perfect use failure rate than withdrawal does.) Diaphrams have a 20% failure rate, with a 6% perfect use rate.

Anyway, I totally respect everyone's personal decision about what type of contraception is right for them. I just like to challenge the idea that withdrawal is so much worse than some of the other options that are widely regarded as "effective enough." I probably wouldn't use withdrawal...but I wouldn't use a diaphram or female condom either.

[bachlava.livejournal.com]

I'd not seen the 19% figure before. The nineteenth edition of the standard reference Contraceptive Technology lists 27% (http://www.contraceptivetechnology.com/table.html), (Planned Parenthood (http://www.plannedparenthood.org/health-topics/birth-control/withdrawal-pull-out-method-4218.htm) and the World Health Organization (http://www.infoforhealth.org/globalhandbook/book/fph_chapter18/fph_chap18_how_effective.shtml) agree) with only spermicide-alone having a higher failure rate, and the physician-reviewed section of Contraceptive Technology about.com health (http://womenshealth.about.com/cs/birthcontrol/a/effectivenessbc.htm) gives 26%. I'm with you on not feeling comfortable relying on withdrawal myself - to each her own, of course. ;)

[atalanta0jess.livejournal.com]

Hm...on second glance, that FDA page sites the 17th edition of contraceptive technology - so 27% maybe more up to date. Perhaps I need to update my bookmarks. In any case, even with the updated contraceptive technology, the female condom has a worse perfect use rate, and a only-slightly-better (6%) typical use rate.

Thanks for pointing that out.