These test results make little since to me. But it does say, "no overt evidence of dysplastic cells," which means it is unlikely for me to have cervical dysplasia (or there is no overt evidence of that)? Does that mean that the wart wasn't caused by that?

I feel bad for asking this because I feel like I should be able to find the answer in my reading, but if I have genital warts and someone gives me oral, can they get genital warts from me? I think the answer is yes, if so, how likely is it? Do I have to have warts at the time for them to get it from me? How do I protect them for getting genital warts from me through oral sex?